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thomass87_91937's avatar
thomass87_91937
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Oct 30, 2014

inline configuration

Hi,

 

I have configuration: NET => FW => F5 => SRV

 

I have VS1 which forwards traffic to SRV (no SNAT used, not possible to do XFF so source address of client is seen). F5 is def gw for SRV. On F5 there is also forwarding IP VS 0/0 and def route to FW. FW also have static route for SRV subnet poiting to F5.

 

Questions: 1. Client from net goes to VS1 (SNAT off) is redirected to SRV (source address is seen, destination nat is in place to pass traffic to SRV). I assume that return traffic from SRV is hitting VS 0/0 (am I right?) VS 0/0 have snat off. And I also assume that source address of SRV is changed to VS1 IP (am I also right?). If not, should I do some SNAT on VS 0/0?

 

  1. Second example. When server is originating connection to NET it hits VS 0/0, is that right? No SNAT is configured so source address of server is seen outside? The route on FW pass traffic back to SRV via F5.

     

  2. If point 1 is true (so when return traffic is automatically SNATed back to VS1 IP) what determines that traffic is SNATed or not? Is it previously created session/entry for DNAT when traffic originating from Net hits VS1?

     

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